a) any customer who walks into the bank
b) an employee of the bank
c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank's product or service
d) a depositor of the bank'
e) a borrower of the bank
2. A lead means
a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank's product
b) a political leader
c) a religious leader
d) a bank chairman
e) None of these
3. Innovation means
a) Compensation
b) inspiration
c) additional perquisites
d) implementing new ideas or new methods
e) None of these
4. A Call means
a) calling on friends
b) calling on bank employees
c) calling on prospective customers
d) to make telephone calls
e) calling on relatives
5. The Traditional Marketing style involves
a) Telemarketing
b) Digital Marketing
c) Indirect Marketing
d) Direct Marketing
e) All of these
6. Modern Method of Marketing include
a) Publicity on the net
b) Advertisement on the net
c) Soliciting business through e-mails
d) Tele marketing
e) All of these
7. A true marketing requires
a) Command and other mindset
b) Control Mindset
c) Passive mindset
d) Active mindset
e) None of these
8. Which of the following sentences is true?
a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers' Market
b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers's market
c) Marketing is not required due to competition
d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization
e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation
9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?
a) Creativity
b) Team spirit
c) Motivation
d) Effective communication skills
e) All of these
10. Market information means
a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars
b) Knowledge of shopping malls
c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix
d) knowledge of various languages
e) None of these
11. Market Research is needed for
a) checking the market area
b) checking the right product to be sold
c) making proper marketing decisions
d) deciding right time to sell
e) All of these
12. Which of the following statement is true
a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses
b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies
c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees
d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function
e) Marketing is a waste of time
13. Marketing plan helps in
a) better lead generation
b) better systems
c) better results
d) improved balance sheet
e) better customer service
14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?
a) Advertisement
b) Publicity
c) Market Research
d) Market Segmentation
e) None of these
15. Motivation means
a) Inspiring employees to perform better
b) Better communication skills
c) Sales Coaching
d) Market Research
e) None of these
16. In a Selling Process in today's world?
a) Only standard products are sold
b) No customization required
c) the seller need not have product knowledge
d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction
e) only quantum of sales matters
17. Find the true statement
a) Marketing is a waste of the employees' time
b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population
c) Marketing involves additional work
d) Marketing involves team work
e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement
18. A Target market is
a) entire country
b) entire city
c) entire globe
d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product
e) all of these
19. Sales forecasting involves
a) Sales Planning
b) Sales Pricing
c) Distribution Channels
d) Consumer tastes
e) All of these
20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC
a) Shirts
b) Ties
c) Both A and B
d) Liberty
21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by
a) DCM
b) Maruti
c) Premier Automobiles
d) Hyundai
22. With you all the way is the slogan of
a) Vodafone
b) SBI
c) ICICI
d) Raymonds
23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man"
a) DCM
b) GRASIM
c) RAYMONDS
d) VIMAL
24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes?
a) Cavenders
b) Four Square
c) Red & White
d) Wills
25. Cross Selling means
a) Identifying customer needs
b) matching the products to customer needs
c) convincing the customers of product benefits
d) responding to questions and objections of customers
e) all of these
ANSWERS
1 (c) | 2 (a) | 3 (d) | 4 ( c) | 5 (d) |
6 (e) | 7 (d) | 8 (b) | 9 (e) | 10 (c ) |
11 (e) | 12 (c) | 13 ( c) | 14 (b) | 15 (a) |
16 (d) | 17 (d) | 18 (d) | 19 (e) | 20 (c) |
21 (b) | 22 (b) | 23 (c) | 24 (d) | 25 (e) |
(A) JSBCNFKS
(B) JSBNHPME
(C) JSBNCKNF
(D) NBSKCJNF
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Volcano
(C) Storm
(D) Hurricane
(E) Cyclone
Ans : (B)
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EVAPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)
4. How many meaningful four letter English words can be formed with the letters ITED using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 5–6) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
A vehicle starts from point P and runs 10 kms. towards North. It takes a right turn and runs 15 kms. It now runs 6 kms. after taking a left turn. It finally takes a left turn, runs 15 kms. and stops at point Q.
5. How far is point Q with respect to point P ?
(A) 16 km
(B) 25 km
(C) 4 km
(D) 0 km
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
6. Towards which direction was the vehicle moving before it stopped at point Q ?
(A) North
(B) East
(C) South
(D) West
(E) North-West
Ans : (D)
7. If each of the consonants of the word PURCHASED is substituted by the letter preceding it and each vowel is substituted by the letter following it, which of the following letters would have the same letter on either sides ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) F
(D) Q
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. If all the letters in the word NEIGHBOURS are rearranged as they appear in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged after the rearrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (C)
9. Asha ranks 16th from the top and 15th from the bottom in an examination. How many students are there in the class ?
(A) 30
(B) 31
(C) 32
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
10. Five students participated in an examination and each scored different marks. Nidhi scored higher than Mamta. Kavita scored lower than Prashant but higher than Nidhi. Anil’s score was between Mamta and Nidhi. Which of the following pairs represents the highest and the lowest scorers respectively ?
(A) Nidhi, Kavita
(B) Kavita, Mamta
(C) Anil, Kavita
(D) Prashant, Mamta
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of digit/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given
below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
E R J L N A Q D P U B F I K T H
Digit/Symbol :
* 2 © 9 6 # 5 1 % $ £ 4 @ 7 3 8
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is followed by a vowel and the last letter is preceded by a consonant, the last letter is to be coded as the code for vowel following the first letter.
(ii) If there are no vowels in the group of letters the codes for the fifth letter from the right and the fifth letter from the left are to be interchanged.
(iii) If the group of letters contains more than one vowel, the codes for both the vowels are to be interchanged.
11. PNEBJI
(A) %6@£©*
(B) %6*@£©
(C) %6*£©@
(D) @%£©6*
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
12. FABLNK
(A) #4£96#
(B) £4#96#
(C) 4#£96#
(D) 49#6#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
13. LPKNJB
(A) 9%£67©
(B) 9©76%£
(C) 9%76©£
(D) 96©7%£
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
14. DTQKNH
(A) 135768
(B) 137568
(C) 138765
(D) 165783
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
15. TNAPUB
(A) 36%$#£
(B) 36#%$£
(C) 63#%$£
(D) 36$%#£
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16-20) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
16. Statements :
Some jeeps are trains.
All trains are buses.
Some boats are jeeps.
Some scooters are buses.
Conclusions :
I. Some scooters are trains.
II. Some bots are buses.
III. Some jeeps are scooters.
IV. All buses are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only IV follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. Statements :
All teachers are engineers.
All engineers are cooks.
Some cooks are merchants.
All merchants are poets.
Conclusions :
I. Some cooks are teachers.
II. Some merchants are engineers.
III. All cooks are engineers.
IV. Some cooks are poets.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and IV follow
(D) Only I and IV follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. Statements :
Some tools are hammers.
Some hammers are nails.
All nails are screws.
All screws are nuts.
Conclusions :
I. All nuts are screws.
II. Some nuts are tools.
III. Some hammers are screws.
IV. All nuts are nails.
(A) All follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. Statements :
All pens are bags.
All bags are glasses.
No glass is a spoon.
All spoons are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some glasses are pens.
II. Some books are bags.
III. No spoon is a pen.
IV. No bag is a book.
(A) Only II and III follow
(B) Only I, III and either II or IV follow
(C) Either II or IV follows
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. Statements :
All petals are flowers.
All thorns are flowers.
Some leaves are thorns.
Some stems are flowers.
Conclusions :
I. Some petals are leaves.
II. All leaves are flowers.
III. Some stems are petals.
IV. No petal is a leaf.
(A) None follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and either I or IV follow
(D) Only either I or IV follows
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21-25) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow—
129 642 921 476 308
21. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the second digit of the lowest number is added to third digit of the highest number after adding 4 to each number ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
22. If the digits in each of the five numbers are arranged in descending order, the position of how many numbers will not change ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (C)
23. Based upon the given set of numbers, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 647
(B) 264
(C) 912
(D) 192
(E) 380
Ans : (E)
24. If in each number, the digits are arranged in ascending order, what will be sum of middle digits of each of the numbers ?
(A) 14
(B) 12
(C) 26
(D) 9
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which will be the second lowest number ?
(A) 129
(B) 642
(C) 921
(D) 476
(E) 308
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 26-30) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arranement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.
@ B D S 3 W A * V 6 9 Q J % H 8 U N I 2 T 4 # 7 5 $ K
26. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based upon their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) BD3
(B) %HU
(C) *V9
(D) T45
(E) S3A
Ans : (D)
28. Which of the following is exactly in the middle of the 17th from the right and 19th from the left end ?
(A) %
(B) H
(C) J
(D) #
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
* 6 Q 9 J H % 8 N U I T ?
(A) N
(B) 4
(C) #
(D) 7
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
30. How many consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number but not immediately followed by another consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31-35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle, facing the centre. F sits to the immediate right of D and third to the left of A. G sits third to the left of D who does not sit next to E. B sits next to G but not next to D. C does not sit next to either D or A.
31. Who sits to the immediate left of a ?
(A) E
(B) F
(C) G
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
32. What is the position of H with respect to C ?
(A) Second to the left
(B) First to the right
(C) Third to the right
(D) Second to the right
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
33. Which of the following pairs sits between G and D ?
(A) AC
(B) CF
(C) HB
(D) FA
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
34. Starting from A’s position, if all the eight are arranged in alphabetical order in clockwise direction, the seating position of which of the following (excluding A) would not change ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) H
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Four of the following are alike based upon their seating arrangement around the circle, which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) FH
(B) GE
(C) CD
(D) BG
(E) EF
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 36-40) Read the following information carefully and answers the questions which follow—
‘A × B’ means ‘A is brother of B’
‘A – B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’.
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is wife of B’.
‘A + B’ means ‘A is son of B’.
36. How is T related to P in the expression ‘P + Q – R ÷ T’ ?
(A) Maternal grandmother
(B) Maternal grandfather
(C) Paternal grandmother
(D) Grandson
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
37. Which of the following means ‘P is sister of S’ ?
(A) P + Q ÷ R – S
(B) P + Q ÷ R ×S
(C) P × Q – R + S
(D) P ÷ Q + R × S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
38. How is P related to S in the expression ‘S ×R + Q ÷ P’ ?
(A) Father
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Grandfather
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
39. How is R related to P in the expression ‘P + Q ×R – T’ ?
(A) Niece
(B) Paternal Uncle
(C) Paternal Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. How is S related to P in the expression ‘P – Q ÷ R ×S’ ?
(A) Nephew
(B) Uncle
(C) Aunt
(D) Either (B) or (C)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 41-45) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments may not be directly related to the question and may be of minor importance or may be related to the trivial aspects of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument. Give answers—
(A) If only argument I is strong.
(B) If only argument II is strong.
(C) If either argument I or II is strong.
(D) If neither argument I nor II is strong.
(E) If both arguments I and II are strong.
41. Statement : Should the number of holidays given to Govt. employees be reduced to only five in a year ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, such holidays subsequently reduce working hours, thus adversely affecting the economy of nation.
II. No, employees require intermittent rest from hectic work schedule.
Ans : (B)
42. Statement : Should all correspondence courses at graduate level be stopped ?
Arguments :
I. No, correspondence courses help needy students to persue studies and earn at the same time.
II. Yes, quality education is not possible without teachers and classrooms.
Ans : (E)
43. Statement : Should only nuclear power be used to generate electricity ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, this will help reduce air pollution to a great extent.
II. No, Radioactive material used in nuclear plants is unsafe for large scale use.
Ans : (B)
44. Statement : Should the Govt. remove all the slums in major cities ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, slums are a nuisance to the people living in big cities.
II. No inhabitants of slums are also citizens of the country and they contribute towards the growth of the nation.
Ans : (D)
45. Statement : Should cricket replace hockey as the national sport of India.
Arguments :
I. Yes, the performance of hockey team has been dismal since last few years.
II. No, cricket is the national sport of Australia and no two countries must have the same national sport.
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 46-50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answers—
(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
46. On which month of the year was Divya born ?
I. Her mother correctly remembers that Divya was born after June and before September.
II. Her father correctly remembers that she was born after March and before August.
Ans : (E)
47. What is the code for ‘those’ if in a certain language ‘those lovely red roses’ is written as ‘pe so la ti’ ?
I. ‘ni jo ke pe’ means ‘stopped at red light’.
II. ‘ba di ti ga’ means ‘roses are very pretty and ‘fo hi la’ means ‘lovely day outside’.
Ans : (E)
48. What is Sumit’s rank from the top in a class of 50 students ?
I. Ajay is 6 ranks below Sumit and is twenty-ninth from the bottom.
II. Ashu is 4 ranks above Sumit and is thirty-fifth from the bottom.
Ans : (C)
49. How many sisters does Mala have ?
I. The only brother of Mala’s father has only one niece.
II. The son of the husband of Mala’s mother has two siblings.
Ans : (D)
50. Who among A, B, C and D is sitting next to A if all the four are sitting in a straight line facing North ?
I. A does not sit next to D who does not sit next on the extreme right.
II. None sit to the left of A and on the right of B, while only one person sits between C and B.
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T, W and Z are seven students studying in three different institutes – A, B and C. There are three girls among the seven students who study in each of the three institutes. Two of the seven students study BCA, two study medicine and one each studies Aviation Technology, Journalism and MBA. R studies in the same college as P who studies MBA in college B. No girl studies journalism or MBA. T studies BCA in college A and his brother W studies Aviation Technology in college C. S studies journalism in the same college as Q. Neither R nor Z study BCA. The girl who studies BCA does not study in college C.
51. Which of the following pairs of students study medicine ?
(A) QZ
(B) WZ
(C) PZ
(D) SZ
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
52. In which college does Q study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
53. In which of the colleges do three of them study ?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) A and B
(D) C
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
54. What is the field of study of Z ?
(A) Aviation Technology
(B) BCA
(C) MBA
(D) Medicines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
55. Which of the following three represents girls ?
(A) SQR
(B) QRZ
(C) SQZ
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 56-65) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
For a recruitment process in an organization, the candidates need to possess the following qualifications/criteria.
(i) A graduate in science with atleast 60% marks.
(ii) An age of atleast 25 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.7.2008.
(iii) Have a post-qualification work experience of atleast 2 years.
(iv) Should have secured 55% marks in the selection process.
However, if the candidates fulfills above mentioned criteria except—
(a) At (i) if the candidate is not a graduate in Science but has a post graduation degree with minimum of 60% marks, he/she should be referred to the HRManager of the organization.
(b) At (iii) if the candidate fulfils all the eligibility criteria but of postqualification work experience but has secured 75% marks in the selection process, he/she may be referred to the Director of the organization.
Based on the above information study carefully whether following candidates are eligible for the recruitment process and mark your answer as follows. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All the cases are given to you as on 1.7.2008.
Mark answers—
(A) If the candidate is to be selected.
(B) If the candidates is not to be selected.
(C) If the candidate may be referred to the HR-Manager.
(D) If the candidate may be referred to the Director.
(E) If the data provided is inadequate to take the decision.
56. Shruti Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a top organization. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process. Born on 5.10.1981, she had completed her Bachelor’s degree in Physics in 2004 and secured 66% marks in it.
Ans : (A)
57. Pradeep Kumar has 6 years of post qualification work experience. His date of birth is 12.4.1972. He has secured 58% marks in the selection process. He has completed graduation in Science and scored 76% in it.
Ans : (A)
58. Zaheer Ahmed has completed graduation and post graduate in Economics from Bhopal in 1999 and has secureds 51% and 68% marks respectively. His date of birth is 26.11.1976. He has been working as an executive in a reputed firm since 2003 till date. He has secured 56% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)
59. Harpreet Kaur has done graduation in Physics and is a post graduate in Science and has secured 57% and 65% marks respectively. She has secured 59% marks in the selection process, and has a post qualification work experience of 3 years.
Ans : (E)
60. Deepak Agarwal has completed graduation and post graduation in Geography with 68% and has secured 57% marks in the selection process. His date of birth is 11.11.1979.
Ans : (E)
61. Varun Arora has secured 79% marks in the selection process. He has completed his degree in B.Sc securing 67% marks in it. His date of birth is 9.3.1975, and has a post qualification work experience of one year.
Ans : (D)
62. Varsha Nath’s date of birth is 6.2.1979. She has done her graduation and post-graduation in Commerce and secured 59% and 62% marks respectively. She has a post qualification work experience as a senior executive of 3 years and has secured 59% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (C)
63. Asha Walia has 4 years of post qualification work experience in a reputed firm. She has done graduation in Botany scoring 71% marks in it. Born on 22.1.1973, she has secured 53% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)
64. Nitesh Burman has done Grduation in Chemistry and has secured 69% in it. His date of birth is 9.12.1981. He has ranked first in the selection process and has secured 82% marks in it. He has four months of post qualification work experience.
Ans : (D)
65. Tanya Shetty has been working in a leading organization since the completion of post graduation in 1990. She was born on 1.5.1968. She is a graduate and a post graduate in Science and has secured more than 60% at both graduate as well as post graduate level. She has secured 71% marks in the selection process.
Ans : (B)
66. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ODME using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)
67. How many such digits are there in the number 84315269 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (D)
68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one tthat does not belong to that group ?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 15
(D) 21
(E) 27
Ans : (A)
69. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Mars
(B) Jupiter
(C) Earth
(D) Uranus
(E) Moon
Ans : (E)
70. If only each of the consonants in the word GROUNDS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the third letter from the right end ?
(A) O
(B) U
(C) S
(D) V
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
71. What should come next in the following letter series ?
A A C A C E A C E G A C E G I A C E G I
(A) J
(B) K
(C) A
(D) L
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
72. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word REFORM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E) 1. How many mango trees will be accommodated with a spacing of 5•0 m x 5•0 m in an area one Hectare ?
(A) 400 tree/ha
(B) 750 tree/ha
(C) 800 tree/ha
(D) 850 tree/ha
(E) 900 tree/ha
2. Of the Total Net Bank Credit (NBC) of the Public Sector Banks at the end of March 2007, what is the share of Agricultural Lending (Direct and Indirect) ?
(A) 13•6 per cent
(B) 14•6 per cent
(C) 15•6 per cent
(D) 16•6 per cent
(E) 17•6 per cent
3. What is the average yield per lactation in buffalo in India ?
(A) 1200 kg
(B) 1250 kg
(C) 1300 kg
(D) 1350 kg
(E) 1400 kg
4. Which one of the following Districts of Andhra Pradesh is considered as the ‘Hub of Fresh Fish Farming’ ?
(A) Nellore
(B) Guntur
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
(E) Anantpur
5. At present, per capita availability of milk in India is about—
(A) 200 gram per day
(B) 210 gram per day
(C) 215 gram per day
(D) 220 gram per day
(E) 225 gram per day
6. Under the cold storage, this crop requires 0-1 degree Celsius temperature and 98–100 per cent humidity ……… .
(A) Brinjal
(B) Bhindi
(C) Peas
(D) Grape
(E) Banana
7. This Hybrid variety of Sorghum (Jowar) is high yielding, tolerant to shoot fly, stemborer, with good roti making qualities suitable for Maharashtra state under Kharif and Rabi Seasons—
(A) AKSV 13 R
(B) SPV 1155 (Variety)
(C) SHD 9690 (Hybrid)
(D) DSV 5 (Variety)
(E) DSV 4 (Variety)
8. Which one of the following Agrofood sector in India has ‘Highest Level of Processing’ (percentage of total production) ?
(A) Fruits and Vegetables
(B) Milk and Milk Products
(C) Buffalo Meat
(D) Poultry Product
(E) Marine Products
9. This Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in India, is one of the fastest growing MFI in the world with annual growth rate of 200 per cent—
(A) PRADHAN
(B) BASIX
(C) SKS
(D) MYRADA
(E) Sadaguru Seva Trust
10. This Sunflower Hybrid Variety is tall (150 cm–180 cm), early in maturity (95 days), yields 1•7 tonnes to 2•0 tonnes per hectare, is recommended for cultivation at all India level—
(A) KBSH 44 (Hybrid)
(B) KBSH 41 (Hybrid)
(C) KBSH 42 (Hybrid)
(D) LSFH 35 (Maruti-Hybrid)
(E) PSFH 118 (Hybrid)
11. As on March 2007, of the total Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) issued to farmers by Formal Financial Institutions in India, the share of commercial banks is about—
(A) 37 per cent
(B) 45 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 49 per cent
(E) 51 per cent
12. During the last four decades, there had ‘Not been any meaningful gain in production’ of this group of crops in India ……… .
(A) Oilseed crops
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Aromatic and Medicinal plants
(D) Horticultural crops
(E) Pulse crops
13. Which one of the following countries, ranked first in the Inland Fisheries production in 2004-05 ?
(A) Japan
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) India
(E) Thailand
14. What percentages of total cultivable area in India, is presently under ‘Fodder’ production ?
(A) 3•60 per cent
(B) 4•60 per cent
(C) 5•60 per cent
(D) 6•60 per cent
(E) 7•60 per cent
15. This country ranked first in production of ‘Mushrooms’ in the world—
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Indonesia
(E) Brazil
16. In which one of the following states, more than 2,000 ‘Vermicomposting units’ started by individuals and/or organization in rural and urban centres ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
17. Nearly 35 per cent of the total ‘Fish Processing Facilities’ in India is concentrated in this state—
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka
18. This is a premier Institute/Board/Authority set up by Government of India for providing technical and financial support for creation of postharvest infrastructure for Horticultural crops in India—
(A) APEDA
(B) NCDC
(C) NHB
(D) MPEDA
(E) None of these
19. Which one of the following crops you will suggest to a Big Farmer for getting higher yields and good income under the ‘Protected cultivation’ or under ‘Green-House condition’ ?
(A) Coloured Capsicum
(B) Vegetable Nursery
(C) Brinjal
(D) Sweet Corn
(E) Lettuce
20. Which one of the following Private Corporate Companies in India is a leader in organized sector producing ‘Potato chips’ in India ?
(A) ITC
(B) HLL
(C) Clean Food
(D) Pepsi Co.
(E) GD Foods
21. In which one of the following Indian states, percentage of total cultivable area under Horticultural crops is only 2•75 per cent ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Uttar Pradesh
22. What percentage of ‘All Economically Productive women population’ in India are engaged in Agriculture including animal husbandry and fisheries ?
(A) 38 per cent
(B) 48 per cent
(C) 58 per cent
(D) 68 per cent
(E) 78 per cent
23. In which year, the ‘Varsha Bima Yojana’ (Insurance against the adverse incidence of rainfall) was started in India ?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
(E) 2008
24. Which one of the following states, the extent of financial exclusion is between 50 to 75 per cent ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jharkhand
(E) West Bengal
25. A field of work in which people aim to improve the access of rural communities to efficient, sustainable financial services is known as or categorized as—
(A) Agricultural Finance
(B) Rural Finance
(C) Micro Finance
(D) Financial Institution
(E) Financial Intermediary
26. The Science of cultivation and harvesting of fruits is called ‘Pomology’, however, of the following fruits, this fruit crop presently is not covered under the ‘Pomology’—
(A) Water-melon
(B) Banana
(C) Strawberry
(D) Sapota
(E) Custard Apple
27. The ‘Productivity of Banana’ (yield per hectare) is highest in this state—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Gujarat
28. Pepsi Co. started Contract farming in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh for preparation of—
(A) Tomato purees
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Groundnut Butter
(D) Sunflower Oil
(E) Chilli Paste for Export
29. At present, how many National Research Institutes are working on Development of Products/crops under ‘Agricultural Biotechnologies’ in India ?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 40
30. ‘Shifting Cultivation’ is practiced in India covering about 14•66 lakh hectare area, where in this state ranked first with 3•75 lakh hectare—
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Tripura
31. Which one of the following flower crops is native of India ?
(A) Gladious
(B) Bougainvillea
(C) Tuberose
(D) Orchids
(E) All these
32. What is the Total Plan allocation (Rs. crores) for development of Rainfed/Dryland Agriculture in the XIth Five Year Plan Period (2007-08 to 2011-2012) ?
(A) Rs. 65,000 crore
(B) Rs. 70,000 crore
(C) Rs. 75,000 crore
(D) Rs. 80,000 crore
(E) Rs. 85,000 crore
33. As on March 31, 2007, how many of the Public Sector Banks had achieved Direct Agricultural Lending Target (13•5 per cent of Net Bank Credit) stipulated by the RBI ?
(A) Eight
(B) Nine
(C) Ten
(D) Eleven
(E) Twelve
34. This ‘Mango Hybrid Variety’ is early maturity, dwarf and having attractive colour, suitable for ‘Chotanagpur Region’ for the India—
(A) Amrapali
(B) Safed Maldah
(C) Malika
(D) Gulab Khas
(E) Ratna
35. Production period in case of tea after gestation period is to the extant of …… .
(A) 100 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 10 years
(E) 5 years
36. Recently, this Public Sector Bank, had launched an innovation called ‘Village Knowledge Centre’ wherein technology is used to help the farmers improve his productivity—
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) United Commercial Bank
(E) Union Bank of India
37. As on 31 March, 2008, which one of the following Microfinance Programmes have covered the largest number of BPL/poor families in India ?
(A) SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
(B) SIDBI Foundation for Micro Credit (SFMC)
(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)
(D) Friends of Women’s World Banking (FWWB)
(E) Rashtriya Grameen Vikas Nidhi (RGVN)
38. Which one of the following is the name of a fungicide which can move mainly upwards within the plant and kill the pathogen away from the point of application ?
(A) Semesan
(B) Demosan
(C) Cuprosan
(D) Tulisan
(E) Ceresan
39. As on March 2008, how many ‘No Frill Accounts’ were opened by Banks under Financial Inclusion ?
(A) 12 million
(B) 13 million
(C) 14 million
(D) 15 million
(E) 16 million
40. This state is the Leading Producer of Vegetables in India contributing around 19 per cent of country’s production from 17 per cent of the total area under vegetable—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
41. According to the RBI Report (2001-02), this Banking Region of the country has ‘Highest Flow of Institutional Credit for Agriculture’ in terms of amount of credit extended in Rs. per hectare of Gross Cropped Area—
(A) Northern Region
(B) North-Eastern Region
(C) Eastern Region
(D) Western Region
(E) Southern Region
42. Based on the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India (RBI, 2007), the number of rural branches of scheduled Commercial Banks in India as on 30th June, 2007, were—
(A) 32,303
(B) 32,121
(C) 30,775
(D) 30,500
(E) 30,633
43. At present (2006), the estimated population of Tractors (Number of Tractors) in India is about—
(A) 28 lakhs
(B) 29 lakhs
(C) 30 lakhs
(D) 31 lakhs
(E) 32 lakhs
44. This being the only country in the world producing all four known commercial varieties of silk viz., Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga—
(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) India
(E) Korean Republic
45. Which one of the following Pearl Millet (Bajra) variety is early maturity, with high yield and suitable for Haryana State under irrigated and rainfed situation ?
(A) GHB-757
(B) HHB-146
(C) GHB-538
(D) HHB-94
(E) RHB-121
46. Of the 31 Districts identified in four states as having higher incidence of farmers suicides due to economic distress. How many of the 31 economically distress districts belonged to Andhra Pradesh ?
(A) 10 Districts
(B) 12 Districts
(C) 14 Districts
(D) 16 Districts
(E) 18 Districts
47. Approximately, what percentage of Total Grape produced in India every year dried for Raising Purpose ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 12 per cent
(C) 14 per cent
(D) 16 per cent
(E) 18 per cent
48. The Head Quarter of ‘National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) which was established on 10th July, 2006 for realizing full potential of Indian Fisheries sector is located at—
(A) Rajendranagar (Hyderabad) A.P.
(B) Cochi (Kerala)
(C) Mangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(E) Bhubaneshwar (Orissa)
49. This Central Cattle Breeding Farm is producing ‘HFx Tharparkar Crossbred Bulls’ for breeding purpose in India—
(A) Andeshnagar (U.P.)
(B) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(C) Hassergatha (Karnataka)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Alamdhi (Tamil Nadu)
50. Which one of the following countries, ‘Annual Per Capita Consumption’ of Wine is highest (50 litres) ?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) Germany
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (E) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (E) 40. (B)
41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C)1.The President of India appoints the Chairman and Members of the National Human Rights Commission on whose recommendations?
(A)Prime Minister of India
(B)Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C)Home Minister
(D)Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(E)All of the Above
Ans. (E) All of the Above
2.In which year India ratified International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights ?
(A)1966
(B)1968
(C)1976
(D)1978
(E)1979
Ans. (E) 1979
3.In which of the following cities is located the technology center of Unique Identification Authority of India?
(A)Delhi
(B)Hyderabad
(C)Ranchi
(D)Hyderabad
(E)Bangalore
Ans. (E) Bangalore
4.The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) links 37 constituent laboratories with diverse research portfolios as varied as drug discovery to oceanography. Recently we read in the newspapers that CSIR’s latest imitative is launching of an Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) Programme. What is the main purpose of Open Source Drug Discovery (OSDD) Programme?
(A)To make India a hub of drug research and development
(B)To bring the scientists of the world under one roof
(C)To bring down the costs of the new drugs and make them affordable to all
(D)To make India self reliant in Drug production
(E)All of above
Ans. (C) To bring down the costs of the new drugs and make them affordable to all
5.On the recommendation of which of the following committees the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has been releasing money of the Centers share of recapitalization assistance to the primary agriculture credit societies (PACS) in various states to introduce
cooperative reforms ?
(A)N R Narayanmurthy Committee
(B)Prof A. Vaidyanathan Committee
(C)K Madhav Das Committee
(D)R Gandhi Committee
(E)None of them
Ans. (B)Prof A. Vaidyanathan Committee
6.Express Remit is the brand name of a remittance facility by which of the following banks?
(A)State Bank of India
(B)Punjab National Bank
(C)Bank of Baroda
(D)ICICI Bank
(E)HDFC Bank
Ans. (A) State Bank of India
7.Which among the following is the most important source region of NRI remittances to India ?
(A)North America
(B)Europe
(C)Middle East
(D)Asia Pacific
(E)South America
Ans. (A) North America
8.As per the guidelines issued by Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) in February 2009, any company with more than what fraction of foreign equity should be considered as a foreign company?
(A)51%
(B)59%
(C)61%
(D)71%
(E)75%
Ans. (A) 51%
9.To achieve 100% financial Inclusion in India, Reserve Bank of India had had issued a circular in July 2009 permitting cash withdrawals of up to Rs 1,000 per day from PoS (Point of sale) terminals at merchant establishments. Recently which of the following bank has become first Bank of India to offer this facility?
(A)State Bank of India
(B)Punjab National Bank
(C)Bank of India
(D)Union Bank of India
(E)UCO Bank
Ans. (D) Union Bank of India
10.Which among the following sector of Indian Economy is maximum dependent on economic developments in advanced nations?
(A)Manufacturing Sector
(B)Agricultural Sector
(C)Mining Sector
(D)Textile Sector
(E)Services Sector
Ans. (E) Services Sector
11.Many a times we read in the newspapers that Government of India is promoting private investment in the country through PPP mode that is Public private partnership. What is the target of the private sector investment in the country by 2012 ?
(A)$ 150 Billion
(B)$ 200 Billion
(C)$ 300 Billion
(D)$ 400 Billion
(E)None of them
Ans. (B) $ 200 Billion
12.Which among the following country has been consistently on the top slot for last four years and this year too in the latest version of World Bank’s annual report “Doing Business 2010″?
(A)Sweden
(B)New Zea Land
(C)Singapore
(D)China
(E)South Korea
Ans. (C) Singapore
13.What is Doing Business 2010 rank of India?
(A)129
(B)131
(C)132
(D)133
(E)135
Ans. (D) 133, last year it was 132 and it has gone down by 1
14.As per the World Bank Report, which among the following in India is comparatively easy for outsiders planning to do business here?
(A)Dealing with Construction Permits
(B)Registering Property
(C)Getting Credit
(D)Enforcing Contracts
(E)Employing Workers
Ans. (C) Getting Credit
15.Which among the following cities ranks first in ease of doing business in India?
(A)Gurgaon
(B)Chandigarh
(C)Hyderabad
(D)Ludhiana
(E)Bangalore
Ans. (D) Ludhiana
16.For the first time in India, in which of the following Budgets “basic reforms in the international financial and trading system ” was stressed in India?
(A)1969
(B)1975
(C)1983
(D)1991
(E)1992
Ans. (C) 1983
17.The recently presented Economic Survey says ” India’s unpardonably large bureaucratic costs are like a valuable resource buried under the ground, waiting to be excavated and used” . The unpardonably large bureaucratic costs refer here to which of the following?
(A)Cost incurred in recruitment and training of bureaucrats
(B)Costs incurred in getting a project cleared in government offices as bribes
(C)Hidden Costs due to unwanted delay in projects approval
(D)Low efficiency of the bureaucracy of the country due to political instability
(E)All of the above
Ans. (C) Hidden Costs due to unwanted delay in projects approval
18.Bring out the incorrect statement regarding India’s textile sector:
(A)India’s textile and clothing sector currently employs 35 million people
(B)After agriculture it is second largest provider of employment
(C)Textile sector has a tendency to shrink as the GDP and Economy grows
(D)Textile sector is a major absorber of low-skilled labor
(E)All of above are correct statements
Ans. (C) statement C is incorrect. This natural tendency has been seen in agriculture sector and not in textile sector
19.Year 2009-10 was a time of inflationary concerns for our country witnessing unusual double digit inflation. In the history of Independent India, which among the following decades had shown 3 consecutive years of double-digit, food price inflation?
(A)1970s
(B)1980s
(C)1990s
(D)2000s
(E)1960s
Ans. (A) 1970s. 1972-73-74
20.Who among the following is the chairman of the Technology Advisory Group which has the mandate to fix the framework for large and transformational IT projects of the government?
(A)Kaushik Basu
(B)C Rangrajan
(C)Nandan Nilkeni
(D)Ashowk Chawla
(E)None of them
Ans. (C) Nandan Nilkeni
21.The following options A to E are news headlines related to Union Budget 2010 , taken from some financial newspapers. Among them bring out the one that deals with Transfer Payments ?
(A)Government projects Rs. 248664 crore for Interest payments
(B)Government projects Rs. 301331 as corporation tax in 2010-11
(C)Government will spend Rs. 60000 Crore on Defense in 2010-11
(D)The Subsidy has been Reduced from Rs. 131025 crore to 116224 crore in Union Budget 2010
(E)The government pitches for Rs. 40000 crore for Disinvestment
Ans. (D) The Subsidy has been Reduced from Rs. 131025 crore to 116224 crore in Union Budget 2010
22.In which of the following example the marginal productivity is close to zero?
(A)7 people working in a bank branch and 3 more join them after a massive recruitment drive of the bank
(B)7 people from a family working in a farm and 3 more join to them because they lost their jobs due to poor markets
(C)7 teachers teaching in a school and 3 more join them to teach 3 different subjects to a class of 100 students
(D)7 people are recruited by a company in unreserved category and 3 more recruited one of them was a physically disabled person
(E)None of them
Ans. (B) Option B is an example of Hidden Unemployment
23.As we all know that economic liberalization began in true sense in July 1991 in India. Which among the following was the first step of the government while taking the country towards Economic Liberalization?
(A)Substantial changes in industrial license policy were made
(B)The Rupee was made convertible
(C)Procedural formalities for Foreign direct Investment were removed
(D)The government significantly reduced the taxes
(E)The Government launched a highly focused Foreign Trade Policy
Ans. (A) Substantial changes in industrial license policy were made
24.Who among the following is not a member of National Development Council?
(A)The Prime Minister of India
(B)The President of India
(C)The members of Planning Commission
(D)The Chief Minister of states
(E)All of above are members
Ans. (B) The President of India
25.Bhoodan Yojna which was a measure of gifting land by the rich landlords to the poor laborers was initiated by whom among the following?
(A)Acharya Narendra Dev
(B)Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(C)Raj Naraina
(D)Medha patkar
(E)Swami Sundaranand
Ans. (B) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
26.As per 2001 census, which among the following states had lowest density of population per sq. kms?
(A)Mizoram
(B)Sikkim
(C)Nagaland
(D)Manipur
(E)Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (E) Arunachal Pradesh
27.In a condition of monopoly, the monopolist has a control over the price he charges for his product. In which of the following conditions he will be able to maximize his profits?
(A)Lowering the prices if the demand curve is elastic
(B)Lowering the price, if the demand curve is inelastic
(C)Raising the price, if the demand curve is elastic
(D)In all of above situation
(E)in none of the above situations
Ans. (A) Lowering the prices if the demand curve is elastic
28.A competitive firm maximizes its profit when _______?
(A)MR=AR
(B)MR=MC
(C)MC=AC
(D)MC=AR
(E)None of the above
Ans. (B) MR=MC
29.Rs. 10000 are realized after selling 100 units and Rs. 14000 are realized after selling 120 Units. In this example, Rs. 200 is ________?
(A)Price per unit
(B)marginal cost
(C)marginal profit
(D)marginal revenue
(E)maximum profit
Ans (D) Marginal Revenue
30.Who among the following is India’s current Minister of State (Expenditure & Financial Services)?
(A)S S Palanimanickam
(B)Namo Narain Meena
(C)Dinsha J. Patel
(D)Jitin Prasada
(E)None of them
Ans. (B) Namo Narian Meena
31.What is the current limit for collateral free loansto micro and small enterprises (MSEs) sector in India?
(A)Rs. 5 Lakh
(B)Rs. 10 Lakh
(C)Rs. 15 Lakh
(D)Rs. 8 Lakh
(E)None of them
Ans. (A) Rs. 5 Lakh
32.As we read in the newspapers that Reserve bank of India is introducing Base rate System which shall be the new reference rate for determining lending rates for banks. The Base Rate System would bring in more transparency to loan pricing for customers. On which date is being introduced in India?
(A)April 1, 2010
(B)June 1, 2010
(C)July 1, 2010
(D)January 1, 2011
(E)April 1, 2011
Ans. (C) July 1, 2011
33.Recently RBI has released on its website, the report of the Committee on Comprehensive Regulation of Credit Rating Agencies. Who among the following is the chairman of this committee?
(A)Dr. K.P. Krishnan
(B)Subir Gokarn
(C)Ashok Chawla
(D)Shri Vipin Malik
(E)Dr A.Vasudevan
Ans. (A) Dr. K. P. Krishnan
34.”On-line Electric Vehicle,”(OELV) is world ‘ s first commercial wireless electric vehicle. It was launched on March 9, 2010 in which of the following countries?
(A)Japan
(B)United States
(C)South Korea
(D)China
(E)India
Ans. (C) South Korea
35.With traded over 161 million contracts in 2009 , MCX has in February 2010 became word’s ______largest commodity Exchange?
(A)Second
(B)Third
(C)Fourth
(D)Fifth
(E)Sixth
Ans. (E) Sixth
36.Recently we read in the newspapers that attorney generals of seven states of United States are investigating over the charges over world’s largest seed producer that it has abused its market power to lock out competitors and raise prices. Which of the following companies is this world’s largest seed producer?
(A)Asgrow
(B)McKenzie Seeds
(C)Burpee Seeds
(D)Monsanto
(E)Unwins Seeds
Ans. (D) Monsanto
37.Recently Bt varieties Bollgard-I and Bollgard-II were amid news as the reports in various news papers say that Bollgard-I has been phased out in many countries and Bolgard-II are preferred. These verities are of ________?
(A)Bt Cotton
(B)Bt Brinjal
(C)Bt Tomato
(D)Bt Potato
(E)None of them
Ans. (A) Bt Cotton
38.Which among the following is the largest importer of Indian marine products as we read in the newspapers that it has decided to adopt the 20 per cent sampling method on Indian marine Products, especially shrimp, from April 2010 which shall lead to difficulty in exports?
(A)China
(B)Japan
(C)United States
(D)European Union
(E)Australia
Ans. (D) European Union
39.Which among the following organizations holds the largest stake in India’s top depository, National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)?
(A)National Stock Exchange
(B)IDBI Bank
(C)Specified Undertaking of the Unit Trust of India (SUUTI)
(D)Bombay Stock Exchange
(E)None of them
Ans. (B) IDBI Bank
40.What is Amfis related to in India?
(A)Banking
(B)Mutual Funds
(C)Marketing & Finance
(D)Power Industry
(E)Information Technology
Ans. (B)Mutual Funds Association of Mutual Funds of India (Amfis)1. RBI’s open market operation transactions are carried out with a view to regulate—
(A) Liquidity in the economy
(B) Prices of essential commodities
(C) Inflation
(D) Borrowing power of the banks
(E) All the above
2. When more than one banks are allowing credit facilities to one party in coordination with each other under a formal arrangement, the arrangement is generally known as—
(A) Participation
(B) Consortium
(C) Syndication
(D) Multiple banking
(E) None of these
3. Open market operations, one of the measures taken by RBI in order to control credit expansion in the economy means —
(A) Sale or purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Issuance of different types of bonds
(C) Auction of gold
(D) To make available direct finance to borrowers
(E) None of these
4. The bank rate means—
(A) Rate of interest charged by commercial banks from borrowers
(B) Rate of interest at which commercial banks discounted bills of their borrowers
(C) Rate of interest allowed by commercial banks on their deposits
(D) Rate at which RBI purchases or rediscounts bills of exchange of commercial banks
(E) None of these
5. What is an Indian Depository Receipt ?
(A) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
(B) A depository account with any of Depositories in India
(C) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
(D) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
(E) None of these
6. An instrument that derives its value from a specified underlying (currency, gold, stocks etc.) is known as—
(A) Derivative
(B) Securitisation Receipts
(C) Hedge Fund
(D) Factoring
(E) Venture Capital Funding
7. Fiscal deficit is—
(A) total income less Govt. borrowing
(B) total payments less total receipts
(C) total payments less capital receipts
(D) total expenditure less total receipts excluding borrowing
(E) None of these
8. In the Capital Market, the term arbitrage is used with reference to—
(A) purchase of securities to cover the sale
(B) sale of securities to reduce the loss on purchase
(C) simultaneous purchase and sale of securities to make profits from price
(D) variation in different markets
(E) Any of the above
9. Reverse repo means—
(A) Injecting liquidity by the Central Bank of a country through purchase of Govt. securities
(B) Absorption of liquidity from the market by sale of Govt. securities
(C) Balancing liquidity with a view to enhancing economic growth rate
(D) Improving the position of availability of the securities in the market
(E) Any of the above
10. The stance of RBI monetary policy is—
(A) inflation control with adequate liquidity for growth
(B) improving credit quality of the Banks
(C) strengthening credit delivery mechanism
(D) supporting investment demand in the economy
(E) Any of the above
11. Currency Swap is an instrument to manage—
(A) Currency risk
(B) interest rate risk
(C) currency and interest rate risk
(D) cash flows in different currencies
(E) All of the above
12. ‘Sub-prime’ refers to—
(A) lending done by banks at rates below PLR
(B) funds raised by the banks at sub-Libor rates
(C) Group of banks which are not rated as prime banks as per Banker’s Almanac
(D) lending done by financing institutions including banks to customers not meeting with normally required credit appraisal standards
(E) All of the above
13. Euro Bond is an instrument—
(A) issued in the European market
(B) issued in Euro Currency
(C) issued in a country other than the country of the currency of the Bond
(D) All of the above
(E) None of these
14. Money Laundering normally involves—
(A) placement of funds
(B) layering of funds
(C) integration of funds
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
15. The IMF and the World Bank were conceived as institutions to—
(A) strengthen international economic co-operation and to help create a more stable and prosperous global economy
(B) IMF promotes international monetary cooperation
(C) The World Bank promotes long term economic development and poverty reduction
(D) All of (A), (B) and (C)
(E) None of (A), (B) and (C)
16. Capital Market Regulator is—
(A) RBI
(B) IRDA
(C) NSE
(D) BSE
(E) SEBI
17. In the term BRIC, R stands for—
(A) Romania
(B) Rajithan
(C) Russia
(D) Regulation
(E) None of these
18. FDI refers to—
(A) Fixed Deposit Interest
(B) Fixed Deposit Investment
(C) Foreign Direct Investment
(D) Future Derivative Investment
(E) None of these
19. What is Call Money ?
(A) Money borrowed or lent for a day or over night
(B) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 3 days
(C) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 7 days
(D) Money borrowed for more than one day but upto 14 days
(E) None of these
20. Which is the first Indian company to be listed in NASDAQ ?
(A) Reliance
(B) TCS
(C) HCL
(D) Infosys
(E) None of these
21. Which of the following is the Regulator of the credit rating agencies in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) SEBI
(E) None of these
22. Who is Brand Endorsing Personality of Bank of Baroda ?
(A) Juhi Chawla
(B) Kiran Bedi
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(D) Kapil Dev
(E) None of these
23. The branding line of Bank of Baroda is—
(A) International Bank of India
(B) India’s International Bank
(C) India’s Multinational Bank
(D) World’s local Bank
(E) None of these
24. The logo of Bank of Baroda is known as—
(A) Sun of Bank of Baroda
(B) Baroda Sun
(C) Bank of Baroda’s Rays
(D) Sunlight of Bank of Baroda
(E) None of these
25. Which of the following statements(s) is/are True about the exports of China which is a close competitor of India ?
(i) China’s economic success is basically on the fact that it exports cheaper goods to rich nations like the USA, etc.
(ii) In the year 2007 China’s exports became almost 40% of its GDP.
(iii) When compared to India China’s share in the World Exports is more than 30% whereas India’s share is mere 6% of the global exports.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
26. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is money laundering. Which of the following acts/norms are launched by the banks to prevent money laundering in general ?
(A) Know Your Customer Norms
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) None of these
27. Lot of Banks in India these days are offering M-Banking Facility to their customers. What is the full form of ‘M’ in ‘M-Banking’ ?
(A) Money
(B) Marginal
(C) Message
(D) Mutual Fund
(E) Mobile Phone
28. Which of the following is/are true about the ‘Sub-Prime Crisis’ ? (The term was very much in news recently.)
(i) It is a mortgage crisis referring to credit default by the borrowers.
(ii) Sub-Prime borrowers were those borrowers who were rated low and were high risk borrowers.
(iii) This crisis originated because of negligence in credit rating of the borrowers.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
29. Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the Financial System in India ?
(A) Industrial Finance
(B) Agricultural Finance
(C) Government Finance
(D) Development Finance
(E) Personal Finance
30. Which of the following is not the part of the scheduled banking structure in India ?
(A) Money Lenders
(B) Public Sector Banks
(C) Private Sector Banks
(D) Regional Rural Banks
(E) State Co-operative Banks
31. As we all know Govt. of India collects tax revenue on various activities in the country. Which of the following is a part of the tax revenue of the Govt. ?
(i) Tax on Income
(ii) Tax on Expenditure
(iii) Tax on Property or Capital Asset
(iv) Tax on Goods and Services
(A) Both (i) and (iii) only
(B) Both (ii) and (iv) only
(C) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(E) None of these
32. We very frequently read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. These SEZs were established with which of the following objectives ?
(i) To attract foreign investment directly.
(ii) To protect domestic market from direct competition from multinationals.
(iii) To provide more capital to agricultural and allied activities.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
33. Which of the following groups of countries has almost 50% share in global emission of carbon every year ?
(A) US, China, India, South Africa
(B) India, China, Russia, Britain
(C) South Africa, Nepal, Myanmar
(D) US, Russia, China & India
(E) None of these
34. Which of the following correctly describes the concept of ‘Nuclear Bank’ floated by International Atomic Energy Agency ?
(i) It is a nuclear fuel bank to be shared by all the nations jointly.
(ii) It is a facility to help nations in enrichment of uranium.
(iii) It is an agency which will keep a close vigil on the nuclear programme of all the nations.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) only
(D) Only (iii)
(E) Both (i) and (ii) only
35. Many times we read about Future Trading in newspapers. What is ‘Future Trading’ ?
(i) It is nothing but a trade between any two stock exchanges wherein it is decided to purchase the stocks of each other on a fixed price throughout the year.
(ii) It is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an underlying asset in the future at a predetermined price.
(iii) It is an agreement between stock exchanges that they will not trade the stocks of each other under any circumstances in future or for a given period of time.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(E) None of these
36. Inflation in India is measured on which of the following indexes/indicators ?
(A) Cost of Living Index (COLI)
(B) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(C) Gross Domestic Product
(D) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(E) None of these
37. As per the reports published in the newspapers a section of society staged a demonstration at the venue of the G-8 Summit recently. What was/were the issues towards which these demonstrators were trying to draw the attention of G-8 leaders ?
(i) Food shortage which has taken 50 million people in its grip.
(ii) Inflation which has gone up substantially across the Globe.
(iii) USA’s consistent presence in Iraq.
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (iii)
(D) Both (i) and (ii) only
(E) None of these
38. Hillary Clinton formally suspended her campaign to ensure election of who amongst the following for the next President of USA ?
(A) George Bush
(B) Barack Obama
(C) John McCain
(D) Bill Clinton
(E) None of these
39. Hugo Chavez whose name was recently in news is the—
(A) President of Congo
(B) Prime Minister of Uganda
(C) President of Venezuela
(D) Prime Minister of Brazil
(E) None of these
40. The Govt. of India has raised the amount of the Loan Waiver to the farmers by 20%. Now the amount is nearly—
(A) Rs. 60,000 crore
(B) Rs. 65,000 crore
(C) Rs. 72,000 crore
(D) Rs. 76,000 crore
(E) Rs. 80,000 crore
41. Delimitation Commission has made a recommendation that next Census should be Panchayat-wise. When is the next Census due ?
(A) 2010
(B) 2011
(C) 2012
(D) 2013
(E) 2015
42. The World Health Organisation has urged that advertisements of which of the following should be banned to protect youth from bad effects of the same ?
(A) Tobacco
(B) Alcoholic drinks
(C) Junk Food
(D) Soft drinks with chemical preservatives
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following countries has allocated a huge amount of US $ 10 billion to provide relief to its earthquake victims ?
(A) Japan
(B) South Korea
(C) China
(D) South Africa
(E) None of these
44. India and Nepal have many agreements on sharing of the water of various rivers. Which of the following rivers is not covered under these agreements ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Gandak
(C) Ganga
(D) Mahakali
(E) All these rivers are covered
45. Which of the following names is not closely associated with space programme of India or any other country ?
(A) CARTOSAT
(B) NLS – 5
(C) RUBIN – 8
(D) GSLV
(E) SCOPE
46. Vijay Hazare Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Hockey
(B) Cricket
(C) Badminton
(D) Football
(E) Golf
47. Which of the following was the theme of the Olympic Torch ?
(A) Journey of Harmony
(B) Green World Clean World
(C) Journey of Peace
(D) Journey for Hunger-free World
(E) None of these
48. Which of the following schemes is not a social development Scheme ?
(A) Indira Awas Yojana
(B) Mid Day Meal
(C) Bharat Nirman Yojana
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(E) All are social schemes
49. Which of the following is not a member of the ASEAN ?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Indonesia
(C) Vietnam
(D) Britain
(E) Singapore
50. Which of the following Awards are given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Kalinga Prize
(B) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(C) Arjun Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) None of these
